Innocence until proven guilty has never, ever been a factor in trials about seizing property (ie: tort law / civil law). Trials about who is the rightful owner of a property always operate on a balance of probabilities basis, not an innocent until proven guilty basis.
If they were declaring their income and paying taxes on it, but the income was sourced by criminal activity, how is it an illegal seizure? It's only an illegal seizure if they bought the property with non-criminal income.
Whether or not they pay tax on their criminal income is a separate question--if they do, they can't also be charged with tax evasion, which is different.
What's unfair here is that they are be treated the same as drug dealers and extortionists because our criminal code makes so many acts around prostitution illegal. That's unfortunate and should change.
If they were declaring their income and paying taxes on it, but the income was sourced by criminal activity, how is it an illegal seizure? It's only an illegal seizure if they bought the property with non-criminal income.
Whether or not they pay tax on their criminal income is a separate question--if they do, they can't also be charged with tax evasion, which is different.
What's unfair here is that they are be treated the same as drug dealers and extortionists because our criminal code makes so many acts around prostitution illegal. That's unfortunate and should change.






